How come we pronounce "vis a vis" as VEEZ-a-vee? Presumably the first vis and the second vis should be prounced the same way. Therefore it should be VEEZ-a-veez with the second "s" being audible. Any thoughts?
Well, it's simple actually. The first s in vis is pronounced because the first letter of the following word is an a. Vee-a-vee would just sound funny. So the s is pronounced. But in French, typically words that end with a vowel such as e or a, and then an s, have a silent ending. Hence the s on the second vis being silent.
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Well, it's simple actually. The first s in vis is pronounced because the first letter of the following word is an a. Vee-a-vee would just sound funny. So the s is pronounced. But in French, typically words that end with a vowel such as e or a, and then an s, have a silent ending. Hence the s on the second vis being silent.
That's what I was going to say but Kelly beat me to it. I just want you to know I'm as smart as Kelly, just not as fast. :-)
Ici, on parle francais.
Il y a beaucoup de phrases en francais qui sont amusantes:
Il ne sert à rien de déshabiller Pierre pour habiller Paul.
Ne tourne pas autour du pot!
avoir un chat dans la gorge
Il pleut comme vache qui pisse
avoir un chat dans la gorge
"Have a cat in the throat"
Il pleut comme vache qui pisse
"It's raining like a pissing cow"
Ummm, yeah . . . common French sayings for sure
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